Assignment 5 Question 1, c, ii

[batubb]

Can you please explain how you reached the following conclusion in your answer:

Since $\mu_i^{\top}\mu_i=1$, $\mathbf{k}_a$ varies between $(\alpha + 0.5)\mu_a$ and $(\alpha + 1.5)\mu_a$.

[mantasu]

Yeah, the explanation doesn't make sense, I don't really remember how I arrived to this. I think the emphasis should be put on the magnitude variance. I'll revise this when I have more time. Thanks for pointing this out!

[batubb]

Thank you! I think it makes sense intuitively, I just couldn't derive it mathematically.